and the Holy Spirit. That is why Christ said to His disciples to baptize all nations in the “name (singular) of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost (Spirit)…” (Matthew 28:19). When the name “God” is mentioned in Scripture without specifying the Son or the Spirit it is usually understood as referring to the Father.
In John 1:1 shouldn’t Christ be referred to as a God because there is no Greek article? The absence of the Greek article does not necessarily mean that the letter “a” is to be substituted. The context must demand it. There are various places in Scripture where the Father is referred to as God without the Greek article (i.e. John 1:6) but no one would refer the Father as a God because there is no Greek article. In any case, there are definite passages in Scripture where Christ is referred to as God the God, that is with the Greek article (i.e. Hebrews 1:8).
I’ve actually had someone tell me that it doesn’t matter if Christ is referred to as “the God” in the Greek New Testament Scriptures because even the Apostle Paul and Silas (who were mere men) were referred to as “the Gods” by pagans in the Greek New Testament Scriptures. But it’s one thing for pagans to assert something since pagans can be wrong about what they believe, and the pagans were wrong when they believed Paul and Silas to be “the Gods”, but it’s quite another thing when the Apostles themselves who wrote the Holy Scriptures assert that Jesus Christ is “the God.” Just because what pagans believe and say is recorded in Scripture doesn’t mean that’s what Scripture is teaching! After all, the lies of the Devil are accurately recorded in Scripture but that doesn’t mean Scripture supports or teaches those lies. On the other hand,